Wednesday, April 27, 2005

Dizban, or disaben?

The Scholar's Haggadah by Guggenheim is an excellent compilation of Haggadah material, as well as commentary. It also held the answer to the question my kids asked, now that they are old enough to read Hebrew well, and have the chutzpah to ask these sorts of questions, " in Chad Gadya, why do we say disaben, when it says disban, right there in the Haggadah?"

Dizban means bought, and is the correct pronounciation. Disaben actually means sold, but has become the traditional/accepted way of saying it, and is the minhag in most places, including minhag sepharad. However, in the arabic and yiddish translations(you mean you didn't say them at your seder?) it is translated correctly as bought. Apparently zuzim didn't translate so well, but my kids weren't asking about it.

There was a post somewhere(sorry, I forgot where, but will be happy to give credit where it is due) crowing about how the poster thinks there is only one version of the Haggadah, and the early Shacharit part is consistant with minhag ashkenaz. The Scholar's Haggadah has the ashkenaz, sepharad, and edat hamizrach texts next to each other on the same page, so comparisons are easy. Needless to say that each minhag has a silghtly different Yishtabach/shacharit and it aint all ashkenaz. Sorry. (by the way, I am a galitzianer, not biased against ashkenaz, just reporting the truth)

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